Search results
Results from the WOW.Com Content Network
The term baptism with fire originated from the words of John the Baptist in Matthew 3:11 (and the parallel passage in Luke 3:16).: [1]. Matthew 3:11 "I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance: but he that cometh after me is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost, and with fire" King James Version 1611
Sandals ("shoes" in KJV) with modern straps, but of a similar style as the sandals in Roman times. In the King James Version of the Bible the text reads: I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance. but he that cometh after me is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost, and with fire:
Gundry notes the emphasis the author of Matthew gives to how quickly Jesus gets out of water of the Jordan.An emphasis not found in Mark or Luke. Gundry believes this is because the baptism would traditionally have been followed by a confessing of sins and the author of Matthew wanted to be clear that Jesus, who had no sins, did not undergo this part of the ritual.
Mark, Matthew, and Luke depict the baptism in parallel passages. In all three gospels, the Spirit of God — the Holy Spirit in Luke, "the Spirit" in Mark, and "the Spirit of God" in Matthew — is depicted as descending upon Jesus immediately after his baptism accompanied by a voice from Heaven, but the accounts of Luke and Mark record the voice as addressing Jesus by saying "You are my ...
The Gospel of John remarks, in John 3:32, that, though Jesus drew many people to his baptism, they still did not accept his testimony, [33] and the Jesus Seminar concludes, on the basis of Josephus's accounts, that John the Baptist likely had a larger presence in the public mind than Jesus. [9]
Jesus has come to John the Baptist to be baptized, but John balked at this, saying that he should be the one baptized. In this verse, Jesus explains why it is right that He should be baptized. In the King James Version of the Bible the text reads: And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all ...
The verse does not specify why exactly John believes he is the one to be baptized. Based on Matthew 3:11 most scholars feel it is largely an issue of precedence. However, according to Hill the Gospel of the Nazarenes , adds a clarification to this section stating that it was because of Jesus' sinlessness that John felt he was the one who should ...
Nicoll argues that use of the aorist "ought to imply that the bulk of the people had already been baptised before Jesus appeared on the scene, i.e., that John's ministry was drawing to its close", [3] cf. the wording of the Good News Translation, After all the people had been baptized, Jesus also was baptized. [26]