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On wageningenur.nl (random website I never heard of before), they define dominant and codominant markers based on gene expression suggesting that the terms dominant and codominant used for markers have the same definition than those used for allelic effects on the phenotype (dominance, recessivity, overdominance, etc..). Questions
In the most simple case, the dominant allele encodes a protein that can perform its function. For example, the dominant allele for the CFTR gene encodes a channel that can let chloride into and out of the cells. The recessive allele, on the other hand encodes a protein that cannot do its job correctly (this also called a loss-of-function mutation).
Therefore, I'd say that, the dominant generation is the generation which have the longest mean generation time (=mean time from the birth to reproduction). As @Shigeta said in the comments: For example, in Homo sapiens, the dominant generation is the diploid phase (sporophyte, you and me) and the non-dominant generation is the haploid phase ...
Protein formed from recessive allele can show dominance over the dominant allele, and this is known as Dominant negative. The protein produced from one allele is faulty and prevents other allele's protein to work properly. Both the proteins interact with each other in particular cell. Genetic trait for red hair is an example of dominant negative.
I am not sure what exactly is meant by a protein being dominant-negative. I have searched online and found that dominant negative refers to a mutation whose gene product adversely affects the normal wild-type gene product within the same cell (with this occurring if the product can still interact with the same elements as the wild-type product ...
This clearly shows that the disease is autosomal dominant. But there is one problem. An autosomal dominant pedigree has the following features: 1. Appears in both sexes with equal frequency. 2. Both sexes transmit the trait to the offspring. 3. Doesn’t skip generations. 4.
On the other hand, if a heterozygous (m/+) offspring has a mutant phenotype then we would say that the mutation is dominant over the wild-type allele. Your question is asking about a test cross of a +/+ individual to a homozygous mutant ( m/m ), however, in this case the RFLP does not typically have any mutant phenotype, it is just a convenient ...
My understanding is that the in cis/in trans terminology is used specifically when referring to the configuration of recessive and dominant alleles for a pair of genes, while in phase/out of phase is used when referring to a pair of individual variants, such as SNPs or indels, however it would be great to get an authoritative clarification on ...
There are many genetic diseases which are caused by dominant genes, for example short toe fingers. The protein related to it is also defective. Another definition includes dominant as wild type most circulated while recessive as mutant allele. But even this seems to be unsatisfactory as every mutation cannot be recessive or defective.
As it was pointed out in the comments, this is the definition of dominance. Though, I thought that dominance of one allele means only which phenotype will prevail in the heterozygote case and I cannot find the relation between the two definitions .