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The term baptism with fire originated from the words of John the Baptist in Matthew 3:11 (and the parallel passage in Luke 3:16).: [1]. Matthew 3:11 "I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance: but he that cometh after me is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost, and with fire" King James Version 1611
Matthew slightly differs from the wording found in Luke and Mark. In those two gospels, John is not worthy of untying the messiah's sandals, in Matthew he is unworthy of carrying them. John predicts a much stronger form of baptism by the Holy Spirit and by fire. It is from this verse that the expression "baptism by fire" comes. [4]
Jesus has come to John the Baptist to be baptized, but John balked at this, saying that he should be the one baptized. In this verse, Jesus explains why it is right that He should be baptized. In the King James Version of the Bible the text reads: And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all ...
In Mark 1:8 and John 1:33, the Baptist proclaimed that Jesus "will baptize in (the) Holy Spirit"; while in Matthew 3:11 and Luke 3:16, he "will baptize with Holy Spirit and fire". [12] Jesus is considered the first person to receive the baptism with the Holy Spirit. [13] The Holy Spirit descended on Jesus during his baptism (Luke 3:21–22).
An emphasis not found in Mark or Luke. Gundry believes this is because the baptism would traditionally have been followed by a confessing of sins and the author of Matthew wanted to be clear that Jesus, who had no sins, did not undergo this part of the ritual. [1] France notes that the "heavens were opened" echoes Ezekiel 1:1.
The baptism of Jesus, the ritual purification of Jesus with water by John the Baptist, was a major event described in the three synoptic Gospels of the New Testament (Matthew, Mark and Luke). [ a ] It is considered to have taken place at Al-Maghtas (also called Bethany Beyond the Jordan), today located in Jordan .
A number of theories have been advanced to explain why Matthew might be directing John's attack to these groups while Luke focuses on the general multitude. Schweizer feels that since Matthew was writing for a more Jewish audience than Luke the author of Matthew did not want to offend all Jews and thus focused only on the unpopular elites. [5]
For if he knew not Him, by Whom he wished to be baptized, it was rash in him to say, I have need to be baptized by Thee. So then he knew Him; and why saith he, I knew Him not?" [2] Chrysostom: "When he saith, I knew Him not, he is speaking of time past, not of the time of his baptism, when he forbad Him, saying, I have need to be baptized of ...