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  2. In John 4:24, what does it mean to "worship in Spirit and truth"?

    hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/43926

    " The Spirit itself beareth witness with our spirit, that we are the children of God." ( Rom. 8:16 KJV) The "Spirit itself" that is God's holy spirit must be attuned with "our spirit", that is our mental disposition that governs our emotions what to say and do, ( Compare Acts 17:16, John 11:33, 13:21, 2 Cor.2:13, Daniel 2:1, Psalm 142:3)and to ...

  3. 1 samuel - What does "an evil spirit from the Lord" mean? -...

    hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/28027

    3. "An evil spirit from the LORD" simply means that the LORD sent an evil spirit to Saul. This is something the author stresses several times in the chapter. 1 Samuel 16:15 (KJV) 15. And Saul's servants said unto him, Behold now, an evil spirit from God troubleth thee. 1 Samuel 16:16 (KJV) 16.

  4. In Romans 8:9 are the "spirit of Christ" and the "spirit of God"...

    hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/32070

    Again, Paul is emphatic that the Spirit of God is the Spirit of Christ also in 1 Cor. 2:14-16, saying that those who possess not Spirit cannot understand things that come from the Spirit of God, and then in verse 14 he quotes Isaiah 40:13 and semantically with the absolutely identical meaning calls the just-quoted "Spirit of God" - the "Mind of ...

  5. What does it mean to be "born of water"?

    hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/133

    Water does not give birth to anything.The Holy Spirit effectuates the rebirth, new birth or regeneration. Conclusion. Therefore, the expression "born of water" in John 3:5 should mean a mere abstract symbol of spiritual cleansing which is in actuality, a concrete work of God in a believer.

  6. 2 corinthians - What "filthiness of the flesh and spirit" is Paul...

    hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/6186

    Filthiness of the flesh and spirit is contrasted against the last part of the verse, "holiness in the fear of God". Thus filthiness is the opposite of holiness (meaning "set apart"). The last half of ch6 spoke about holiness, and how believers should be set apart from the world and not "unequally yoked".

  7. contradiction - How can John 1:18 say that "No man has seen God"...

    hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/44536

    No man hath seen God at any time John 1:18 KJV. God is a Spirit John 4:24 KJV. And God appeared unto Abraham. Stephen enlarges on this just before they stoned him : The God of glory appeared unto our father Abraham, when he was in Mesopotamia, before he dwelt in Charran, Acts 7:2 KJV

  8. What can we learn about the relationship between "God" and "the...

    hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/55640

    God's spirit is the omnipresent influence of God through which He touches every heart and mind. God IS spirit (see John 4:24), a spiritual being, and, those who worship Him must do so in spirit and in truth. But God's spirit is not some extra-Father or extra-Son existence (being). It is not an entity that can be separated from the Father and ...

  9. Mark 9:17,25...what does it mean: the Spirit (not the obsessed)...

    hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/44766

    And one of the multitude answered and said, Master, I have brought unto thee my son, which hath a dumb spirit; KJV. Mark 9:25; When Jesus saw that the people came running together, he rebuked the foul spirit, saying unto him, {cf15I Thou} dumb and deaf spirit, I charge thee, come out of him, and enter no more into him. KJV.

  10. What is a "quickening spirit" (1 Cor 15:45) and how is it...

    hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/5550

    He could give life of the flesh, not of the spirit (1 Corinthians 15:46). He was unable to give eternal life. "the last Adam was made a quickening spirit (life-giving spirit)." This is the holy spirit (breath) given to Christ at his baptism (Luke 3:21-22). This holy spirit made Christ the anointed one, the messiah (Acts 2:33).

  11. In 1 Samuel 28:15 did the witch at Endor actually bring up the...

    hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/35252

    It is clear in the text from 1 Samuel 28:19 that the elohim that came up correctly predicted Saul's demise, along with his sons, and the defeat of Israel at the hands of the Philistines, something that seems unlikely for an evil spirit to be able to do, unless God was manipulating the spirit to prophesy against Saul.