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In view of all the available biblical evidence relating to the divorce and remarriage problems in the Early Church, The General Council of the Assemblies of God has adopted interpretation six above—the description, "one woman man," is best understood to refer to persons in a sexually faithful, heterosexual, monogamous marriage, where neither ...
Pseudo-Chrysostom: He does not say that God will first forgive us, and that we should after forgive our debtors. For God knows how treacherous the heart of man is, and that though they should have received forgiveness themselves, yet they do not forgive their debtors; therefore He instructs us first to forgive, and we shall be forgiven after. [4]
The most debated issue is over the exception to the ban on divorce, which the KJV translates as "saving for the cause of fornication." The Koine Greek word in the exception is πορνείας /porneia, this has variously been translated to specifically mean adultery, to mean any form of marital immorality, or to a narrow definition of marriages already invalid by law.
Having crossed the Jordan, Jesus teaches the assembled crowd in his customary way, answering a question from the Pharisees about divorce. C. M. Tuckett suggests that Mark 8:34-10:45 constitutes a broad section of the gospel dealing with Christian discipleship and that this pericope on divorce (verses 1-12) "is not out of place" within it, although he notes that some other commentators have ...
The third antithesis (verses 31–32) not only contains Jesus' rejection of the legal process of divorce stated in Deuteronomy 24:1 [13] but uniquely includes his only justification for divorce, i.e. "sexual unfaithfulness" (cf. Matthew 19:8).
For whoso does not judge his neighbour who has sinned against him, him shall not God judge for his sin, but will forgive him his debt even as he forgave. [7] Chrysostom: Otherwise; He does not forbid us to judge all sin absolutely, but lays this prohibition on such as are themselves full of great evils, and judge others for very small evils. In ...
God does not know sinners because they are not worthy that they should be known of God; not that He altogether is ignorant concerning them, but because He knows them not for His own. For God knows all men according to nature, but He seems not to know them for that He loves them not, as they seem not to know God who do not serve Him worthily. [6 ...
That this verse refers to Joseph as Mary's husband does not conflict or mean a change in circumstances from Matthew 1:18, where he is merely her betrothed.The betrothal of the period was a formal arrangement and the couple can reasonably be considered husband and wife while betrothed.
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