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In finance, a collar is an option strategy that limits the range of possible positive or negative returns on an underlying to a specific range. A collar strategy is used as one of the ways to hedge against possible losses and it represents long put options financed with short call options. [ 1 ]
The technique applied then, is (1) to generate a large number of possible, but random, price paths for the underlying (or underlyings) via simulation, and (2) to then calculate the associated exercise value (i.e. "payoff") of the option for each path. (3) These payoffs are then averaged and (4) discounted to today.
The embedded "option cost" can be quantified by subtracting the OAS from the Z-spread (which ignores optionality and volatility). Since prepayments typically rise as interest rates fall and vice versa, the basic (pass-through) MBS typically has negative bond convexity (second derivative of price over yield), meaning that the price has more ...
Otherwise the intrinsic value is zero. For example, when a DJI call (bullish/long) option is 18,000 and the underlying DJI Index is priced at $18,050 then there is a $50 advantage even if the option were to expire today. This $50 is the intrinsic value of the option. In summary, intrinsic value: = current stock price − strike price (call option)
For an American option this value is always greater than zero in a fair market, thus an option is always worth more than its current exercise value. [1] As an option can be thought of as 'price insurance' (e.g., an airline insuring against unexpected soaring fuel costs caused by a hurricane), TV can be thought of as the risk premium the option ...
From the viewpoint of the option issuer, e.g. an investment bank, the gamma term is the cost of hedging the option. (Since gamma is the greatest when the spot price of the underlying is near the strike price of the option, the seller's hedging costs are the greatest in that circumstance.)
The payoff of the option, repriced under this change of numeraire, is max(0, S 1 (T)/S 2 (T) - 1). So the original option has become a call option on the first asset (with its numeraire pricing) with a strike of 1 unit of the riskless asset. Note the dividend rate q 1 of the first asset remains the same even with change of pricing.
The general methodology is as follows: (1) Define the set of yielding products - these will generally be coupon-bearing bonds; (2) Derive discount factors for the corresponding terms - these are the internal rates of return of the bonds; (3) 'Bootstrap' the zero-coupon curve, successively calibrating this curve such that it returns the prices ...