Search results
Results from the WOW.Com Content Network
Expected shortfall (ES) is a risk measure—a concept used in the field of financial risk measurement to evaluate the market risk or credit risk of a portfolio. The "expected shortfall at q% level" is the expected return on the portfolio in the worst % of cases.
The FRTB revisions address deficiencies relating to the existing [8] Standardised approach and Internal models approach [9] and particularly revisit the following: . The boundary between the "trading book" and the "banking book": [10] i.e. assets intended for active trading; as opposed to assets expected to be held to maturity, usually customer loans, and deposits from retail and corporate ...
Here, α is a "multiplier" of 1.4, acting as a buffer to ensure sufficient coverage; and: RC is the "Replacement Cost" were the counterparty to default today: the current exposure, i.e. mark-to-market of all trades, is aggregated by counterparty, and then netted-off with haircutted - collateral .
Under some formulations, it is only equivalent to expected shortfall when the underlying distribution function is continuous at (), the value at risk of level . [2] Under some other settings, TVaR is the conditional expectation of loss above a given value, whereas the expected shortfall is the product of this value with the probability of ...
risk profile by grade; migrations across different grades; risk parameter estimates for each grade; a comparison of the actual default rates against the expected as predicted by the rating system; Banks must have independent functions responsible for development and ongoing monitoring of the rating systems.
For example, if a portfolio of stocks has a one-day 5% VaR of $1 million, that means that there is a 0.05 probability that the portfolio will fall in value by more than $1 million over a one-day period if there is no trading. Informally, a loss of $1 million or more on this portfolio is expected on 1 day out of 20 days (because of 5% probability).
The value of this option is equal to the suitably discounted expected value of the payoff (,) under the probability distribution of the process . Except for the special cases of β = 0 {\displaystyle \beta =0} and β = 1 {\displaystyle \beta =1} , no closed form expression for this probability distribution is known.
Under these conditions the 95% VaR for holding either of the bonds is 0 since the probability of default is less than 5%. However if we held a portfolio that consisted of 50% of each bond by value then the 95% VaR is 35% (= 0.5*0.7 + 0.5*0) since the probability of at least one of the bonds defaulting is 7.84% (= 1 - 0.96*0.96) which exceeds 5%.