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  2. Why does David mourn the death of his adult son Absalom and not...

    hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/965/why-does...

    David knew he would meet the (innocent) child in heaven, while Absalom, who rebelled to the will of God, would certainly go to hell. We can find a parallel in the parable of the prodigal son: the master rejoice (compare to mourn) for the younger son because he was lost, but then repented. He doesn't "care" about the eldest because is already saved.

  3. Why did God specifically target the firstborn in the 10th plague...

    hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/40591

    The symbolism of the death of the firstborn is explained at the very beginning as corresponding to Israel being God's firstborn son. Pharaoh refused to release God's firstborn son, therefore Pharaoh's punishment is that he loses his firstborn son (Exodus 4:22-23, NRSV): Then you shall say to Pharaoh, “Thus says the Lord: Israel is my ...

  4. hebrew bible - What was David's infant son's age at death? -...

    hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/35994

    Today, death before 30 days is considered 'stillborn'. Back in the day, perhaps an infant dying before the 8th day was also considered as 'never having lived'. However, clearly David thought he would see the child in the afterlife. Curious, to be sure. – tblue.

  5. 2 samuel - Is it possible that God did not actually kill David's...

    hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/37730

    God has put laws in order and there are consequences to such, i.e. stoning to death adulterers and immediate death to non-Levites who touch the Ark of the Covenant. While yes, semantically it is written AND read that God killed people because of sin, we often forget the perspective that transgression of the law leads to consequences.

  6. Was Ishmael a teenager or a child when he and Hagar were sent...

    hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/2592

    When Sarah sent Hagar and Ishmael away in Genesis 21, Ishmael is referred to several times as a child: 15 When the water in the skin was gone, she put the child under one of the bushes. 16 Then she went and sat down opposite him a good way off, about the distance of a bowshot, for she said, “Let me not look on the death of the child.” And ...

  7. Is Exodus 21:22 about a premature birth or a miscarriage?

    hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/76131

    Note here, that we don’t infer the child’s death from the word yasa, but from explicit statements in the context. This is a still-birth, not a miscarriage. The child is dead before the birth (“whose flesh is half eaten away”), and doesn’t die as a result of the untimely delivery, as in a miscarriage.

  8. Did the author of Genesis intend for Rachel's death in childbirth...

    hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/73540

    Hemorrhaging after birth can kill. And if a woman relaxes during childbirth, the pain is greatly lessened. (I speak from experience.) 30:1 Rachel said she would die if she did NOT bear a child! 31:32 Jacob wished death on whoever stole the images, but 10 years passed before Rachel conceived then died after giving birth (likely due to hemorrhage.)

  9. Exodus 21:22: is "mischief" related only to the mother or to the...

    hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/2501

    the literal meaning of "depart" works quite well to describe birth: the child departs her mother during birth. "miscarriage" requires us to assume the death of all children born early, which is not reasonable. For example, a child born at 39 or 40 weeks is full-term, though birth may be provoked by violence to the mother.

  10. Question about the Egyptian firstborn in Exodus [closed]

    hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/39142

    Applying a narrative analysis, we might say that the final stroke is the mirror of the first. Pharaoh killed the sons of Israel; God killed the sons of Egypt. In support of this reading we might point to the Exodus being construed a contest between Pharaoh and God, e.g. with the Egyptians magicians mimicking the plagues.

  11. What is “sin that leads to death” in 1 John 5:16?

    hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/359

    The "sin unto death" is every unrepented one, i.e. every sin by which and in which man remains entrenched consciously, voluntarily, and stubbornly. Such a sin evokes the death of the soul. The death of the soul is nothing more than the separation from God, depriving the soul of God and his grace filled-gifts and powers.